Shown: posts 1 to 5 of 5. This is the beginning of the thread.
Posted by mat on April 27, 2002, at 11:12:41
hi!
i just browsed a bit in the DSM-IV-TR and while studying the diagnostic criteria for the bipolar disorders i wondered why
someone who has only experienced one manic episode is considered to be BIpolar I.
can anybody help me understand this?
thanks in advance-mat
Posted by judy1 on April 29, 2002, at 2:55:25
In reply to bipolar I without depression?, posted by mat on April 27, 2002, at 11:12:41
Hi!
It's really rare but does happen, (mania without depression). Remember the DSM is just a tool for classification for insurance companies mostly and sponsered by pharmaceutical companies so they can target drugs at a specific 'label'. I know my shrink who specializes in bipolar told me he only had 1 patient among several hundred bp 1's that just had 1 manic episode and he didn't keep her on drugs long term. Usually when something like that happens it's in response to an AD or organic disorder, but like I said it happens. A manic episode (or hypomanic episode) is what differentiates unipolar and bipolar disorder. Did I make sense? Take care, Judy
Posted by mat on April 29, 2002, at 5:41:51
In reply to Re: bipolar I without depression? » mat, posted by judy1 on April 29, 2002, at 2:55:25
> Hi!
> It's really rare but does happen, (mania without depression). Remember the DSM is just a tool for classification for insurance companies mostly and sponsered by pharmaceutical companies so they can target drugs at a specific 'label'. I know my shrink who specializes in bipolar told me he only had 1 patient among several hundred bp 1's that just had 1 manic episode and he didn't keep her on drugs long term. Usually when something like that happens it's in response to an AD or organic disorder, but like I said it happens. A manic episode (or hypomanic episode) is what differentiates unipolar and bipolar disorder. Did I make sense? Take care, Judyhi!
does that mean that in the case of a person that's currently experiencing his/her first manic episode (without a preceding depressiive episode), you consider him to be bipolar bacause the probability that this person will also get through depressive episodes in the future is so high? actually this is a more a "prognosis" than a "diagnosis".
thank's a lot for your answer in advance
mat
Posted by mat on April 29, 2002, at 5:42:13
In reply to Re: bipolar I without depression? » mat, posted by judy1 on April 29, 2002, at 2:55:25
> Hi!
> It's really rare but does happen, (mania without depression). Remember the DSM is just a tool for classification for insurance companies mostly and sponsered by pharmaceutical companies so they can target drugs at a specific 'label'. I know my shrink who specializes in bipolar told me he only had 1 patient among several hundred bp 1's that just had 1 manic episode and he didn't keep her on drugs long term. Usually when something like that happens it's in response to an AD or organic disorder, but like I said it happens. A manic episode (or hypomanic episode) is what differentiates unipolar and bipolar disorder. Did I make sense? Take care, Judyhi!
does that mean that in the case of a person that's currently experiencing his/her first manic episode (without a preceding depressiive episode), you consider him to be bipolar bacause the probability that this person will also get through depressive episodes in the future is so high? actually this is a more a "prognosis" than a "diagnosis".
thank's a lot for your answer in advance
mat
Posted by judy1 on April 29, 2002, at 11:25:59
In reply to Re: bipolar I without depression? » judy1, posted by mat on April 29, 2002, at 5:42:13
Unfortunately, yes (I say unfortunately because I hope it's not you we're talking about). Normally the first episode is in the teen/early 20s and for some reason I think I read mania presents more commonly first in males (although my first episode was manic as a teen) Take care, Judy
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