Psycho-Babble Medication Thread 1045773

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Re: Bipolar DX based only on SSRI hypomanic response? » Phillipa

Posted by antennastoheaven on June 24, 2013, at 13:59:57

In reply to Re: Bipolar DX based only on SSRI hypomanic response?, posted by Phillipa on June 24, 2013, at 9:45:21

> In other words (and my spelling is horrific) you had low grade depression before the wellbutrin which worked but left a residual of low grade depression? Would just taking the wellbutrin work? And combine with talking to professional or friend? Sometimes I feel two many myself included took or take meds when none or a low dose of one would work better? Hard to know without seeing the person in real life. Phillipa

The depression has been bad enough for me to miss work before Wellbutrin. On Wellbutrin I am productive again, but don't feel good and still experience anhedonia most of the time. The variety of other drugs I've used (neuroleptics, anticonvulsants, SSRIs) all made things worse in some way, often enough to miss work. I've only experienced mania as a result of SSRIs - which was bad for me and not sustainable, but I did feel good while it was going on.

I am thinking of just sticking with Wellbutrin from now on and doing more individual therapy once I am no longer in this partial day treatment program.

 

Re: Bipolar DX based only on SSRI hypomanic response? » antennastoheaven

Posted by Beckett on June 24, 2013, at 16:49:16

In reply to Re: Bipolar DX based only on SSRI hypomanic response? » Phillipa, posted by antennastoheaven on June 24, 2013, at 13:59:57

Antidepressants give me hypomania. I am classified by my doctor as bipolar II. Recurrent depression is a problem. I don't need mania control, but I feel I need stabilization to lessen the frequency of my depressions. I take lithium which you mentioned does not work for you.

Do you currently feel more dysthymic than depressed? Maybe you are on enough medication for now. Anhedonia is difficult to deal with. Recently my doc consented to add a small amount of adderall and it has helped immensely. I tried all sorts of meds over the past year plus to deal with anhedonia. Good luck to you.

 

Re: Bipolar DX based only on SSRI hypomanic response? » Beckett

Posted by antennastoheaven on June 24, 2013, at 17:06:23

In reply to Re: Bipolar DX based only on SSRI hypomanic response? » antennastoheaven, posted by Beckett on June 24, 2013, at 16:49:16

Dysthymia seems like an accurate description when I'm on Wellbutrin and not on any numbing drugs. Otherwise, I fit he criteria for major depression all the time - constant depression that can be lessened temporarily with novelty. I am also diagnosed with ADD and have Adderall, which I don't currently use, and wouldn't want to use every day just so I could enjoy things.

Also (secretly) diagnosed with schizoid personality disorder which has an anhedonia/lack of interest component.

 

Re: Bipolar DX based only on SSRI hypomanic response?

Posted by linkadge on June 24, 2013, at 17:13:37

In reply to Re: Bipolar DX based only on SSRI hypomanic response? » Beckett, posted by antennastoheaven on June 24, 2013, at 17:06:23

Nobody knows the answers to these questions. The only reason psychiatrists like to label such reactions as bipolar, is because it essentially puts the blame for the outcome back on the patient.

If the drugs cause the bipolar, then the drugs are flawed. If the patient has 'latent bipolar', then its not the drugs, or psychiatry's fault.

I suppose there are also legal ramifications for the decision to blame the patient.

If crack makes you manic, are you bipolar? No, so why is this the case with SSRIs?

 

Re: Bipolar DX based only on SSRI hypomanic response?

Posted by linkadge on June 24, 2013, at 17:23:00

In reply to Re: Bipolar DX based only on SSRI hypomanic response?, posted by linkadge on June 24, 2013, at 17:13:37

No no. SSRI's don't make bipolar..

Why? I dunno....they're not supposed to?

Linkadge

 

Re: Bipolar DX based only on SSRI hypomanic response? » antennastoheaven

Posted by Beckett on June 24, 2013, at 18:10:59

In reply to Re: Bipolar DX based only on SSRI hypomanic response? » Beckett, posted by antennastoheaven on June 24, 2013, at 17:06:23

> Dysthymia seems like an accurate description when I'm on Wellbutrin and not on any numbing drugs. Otherwise, I fit he criteria for major depression all the time - constant depression that can be lessened temporarily with novelty. I am also diagnosed with ADD and have Adderall, which I don't currently use, and wouldn't want to use every day just so I could enjoy things.
>
> Also (secretly) diagnosed with schizoid personality disorder which has an anhedonia/lack of interest component.

If you have ADD, are you currently leaving it untreated? That can add to depressive symptoms. We all have our personal feelings about how we want our treatments, but maybe a little adderall would help you out of the hole. Personally, and differently than you expressed, I don't have a problem .anymore about taking a little stimulant in order to feel like a
living person (that's how bad I was.)

Oh, P.S. the categorization of bipolar is very odd in my opinion. Though I believe bipolar depression is more difficult to treat than unipolar depression. Treatment is more limited and the depression is stubborn and deep.

 

Re: Bipolar DX based only on SSRI hypomanic response?

Posted by polarbear206 on June 24, 2013, at 18:23:01

In reply to Bipolar DX based only on SSRI hypomanic response?, posted by antennastoheaven on June 24, 2013, at 3:51:05

Perhaps you could tolerate and get a good response from an AD if you took it in conjunction with a mood stabilizer. Wellbutrin is a poor AD. I wouldn't obsess about being Bipolar or not. I will tell you that you don't have to to
have hypomania with bipolar. It can present as anxiety, agitation, irritability. There is a broad spectrum to affective disorders. Keep in mind.

The bread won't rise without the yeast.

 

Re: Bipolar DX based only on SSRI hypomanic response? » Beckett

Posted by antennastoheaven on June 24, 2013, at 19:05:09

In reply to Re: Bipolar DX based only on SSRI hypomanic response? » antennastoheaven, posted by Beckett on June 24, 2013, at 18:10:59

I don't have any ADD issues right now because I'm not working... ADD is only really a problem when concentration is required and I work in a cognitively demanding field. Wellbutrin alone is sufficient to deal with motivation issues and any minor attention issues that might occur in everyday life.

I don't want to take too much Adderall because I want it to be more effective once I do go back to work.

 

Re: Bipolar DX based only on SSRI hypomanic response?

Posted by antennastoheaven on June 24, 2013, at 19:22:39

In reply to Re: Bipolar DX based only on SSRI hypomanic response?, posted by polarbear206 on June 24, 2013, at 18:23:01

> Perhaps you could tolerate and get a good response from an AD if you took it in conjunction with a mood stabilizer. Wellbutrin is a poor AD. I wouldn't obsess about being Bipolar or not. I will tell you that you don't have to to
> have hypomania with bipolar. It can present as anxiety, agitation, irritability. There is a broad spectrum to affective disorders. Keep in mind.
>
> The bread won't rise without the yeast.

I think Wellbutrin is a great antidepressant for those with certain symptoms. It certainly works for dealing with my motivation issues. For me, there are no bothersome side effects, and I can stop Wellbutrin at any time. The first few days off it are rather low, if only because I was feeling so well before.

I am thinking about mood stabilizers in conjunction with other antidepressants, and I think it's risky. It makes me think of speedballing (mixing stimulants and depressants, most commonly cocaine with heroin). Of course combining a mood stabilizer and antidepressant is not nearly as dangerous, but there are still questions of balance. Not to mention I'd be taking TWO drugs with their own set of side effects, and both would most likely have noticeable side effects. The fact that both anticonvulsants and SSRIs tend to be cognitively impairing is a huge problem; a combination of both could make me feel good yet not manic, but unable to actually get any hard work done.

I care about having a bipolar diagnosis because the diagnostic label makes a difference as to how you are treated. Being prematurely diagnosed and treated as bipolar has caused significant impairment in my life; I probably wouldn't have been prescribed the mood stabilizers without this diagnosis. Lithium made me unproductive and physically miserable for the few weeks while I was on it. Lamictal made me feel so depressed that I wanted to kill myself, thus making me miserable for a month. And I had to figure out that it was the drug making me feel this way all on my own; the pdoc's next idea was to INCREASE the dose. I felt better shortly after backing down on the dose. These drugs made me miss at least a few weeks of work, skip out on fun experiences, and generally caused two rather bad months of my life. One psychiatrist didn't want to give me one treatment because ishe was afraid it may cause mania (nevermind that only SSRI/SNRIs have caused mania and the drug considered was dopaminergic).

 

Re: Bipolar DX based only on SSRI hypomanic response? » linkadge

Posted by SLS on June 24, 2013, at 22:07:12

In reply to Re: Bipolar DX based only on SSRI hypomanic response?, posted by linkadge on June 24, 2013, at 17:13:37

> If crack makes you manic, are you bipolar? No, so why is this the case with SSRIs?

If?

Does crack make one manic?


- Scott

 

Re: Bipolar DX based only on SSRI hypomanic response? » linkadge

Posted by SLS on June 24, 2013, at 22:14:19

In reply to Re: Bipolar DX based only on SSRI hypomanic response?, posted by linkadge on June 24, 2013, at 17:23:00

> No no. SSRI's don't make bipolar..

Perhaps not, but they do seem to uncover it.

Would you agree that there are difference in brain biologies between individuals that causes one person to become manic on a SSRI and another not? Might an occult bipolar diathesis explain some percentage of these cases of SSRI-induced mania?


- Scott

 

Re: Bipolar DX based only on SSRI hypomanic response? » antennastoheaven

Posted by SLS on June 24, 2013, at 22:24:24

In reply to Re: Bipolar DX based only on SSRI hypomanic response? » Phillipa, posted by antennastoheaven on June 24, 2013, at 13:59:57

> I am thinking of just sticking with Wellbutrin from now on and doing more individual therapy once I am no longer in this partial day treatment program.

Perhaps this is for the best. I think matters become overly complicated with your current approach towards treatment.


- Scott

 

Bipolar DX based on SSRI hypomania » linkadge » antennastoheaven

Posted by SLS on June 24, 2013, at 22:42:27

In reply to Re: Bipolar DX based only on SSRI hypomanic response?, posted by antennastoheaven on June 24, 2013, at 19:22:39

> > No no. SSRI's don't make bipolar..
>
> Perhaps not, but they do seem to uncover it.
>
> Would you agree that there are difference in brain biologies between individuals that causes one person to become manic on a SSRI and another not? Might an occult bipolar diathesis explain some percentage of these cases of SSRI-induced mania?
>
>
> - Scott


http://voices.yahoo.com/rare-bipolar-disorder-types-iv-v-vi-75

"Bipolar IV is identified when antidepressant medication causes a hypomanic or manic phase. The most common class of antidepressants that cause this reaction are SSRI's (selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors).Doctors who suspect bipolar disorder in depressed patients sometimes prescribe SSRI antidepressants to expose manic and hypomanic symptoms. The patient who develops this type of bipolar disorder normally only suffered from depression with no signs of mania before treatment."

Check out the classification proposals of Klerman and Akiskal. These ideas are nothing new.


- Scott

 

Re: Bipolar DX based only on SSRI hypomanic response?

Posted by antennastoheaven on June 24, 2013, at 22:45:57

In reply to Re: Bipolar DX based only on SSRI hypomanic response? » antennastoheaven, posted by SLS on June 24, 2013, at 22:24:24

> Perhaps this is for the best. I think matters become overly complicated with your current approach towards treatment.

What is that supposed to mean?

 

Re: Bipolar DX based only on SSRI hypomanic response? » SLS

Posted by antennastoheaven on June 24, 2013, at 22:48:48

In reply to Re: Bipolar DX based only on SSRI hypomanic response? » linkadge, posted by SLS on June 24, 2013, at 22:14:19

> > No no. SSRI's don't make bipolar..
>
> Perhaps not, but they do seem to uncover it.

By definition in DSM-IV-TR, SSRI induced mania is not a manic episode and insufficient to make a bipolar diagnosis.

Would symptoms resembling ANY non-substance-related mental disorder be considered valid for a diagnosis of that disorder, if those symptoms were a result of intoxication?

> Would you agree that there are difference in brain biologies between individuals that causes one person to become manic on a SSRI and another not? Might an occult bipolar diathesis explain some percentage of these cases of SSRI-induced mania?

I'm not aware of any evidence that suggests that SSRI-induced mania and natural bipolar mania are caused by the same mechanism. Manic behavior can be caused by intoxication from a number of drugs; what makes SSRIs special?

 

Re: Bipolar DX based only on SSRI hypomanic response? » antennastoheaven

Posted by Phillipa on June 24, 2013, at 22:49:25

In reply to Re: Bipolar DX based only on SSRI hypomanic response?, posted by antennastoheaven on June 24, 2013, at 22:45:57

Follow your plan it's well thought out and obviously you are well versed. Phillipa

 

Re: Bipolar DX based on SSRI hypomania » SLS

Posted by antennastoheaven on June 24, 2013, at 23:01:33

In reply to Bipolar DX based on SSRI hypomania » linkadge » antennastoheaven, posted by SLS on June 24, 2013, at 22:42:27

> "Bipolar IV is identified when antidepressant medication causes a hypomanic or manic phase. The most common class of antidepressants that cause this reaction are SSRI's (selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors).Doctors who suspect bipolar disorder in depressed patients sometimes prescribe SSRI antidepressants to expose manic and hypomanic symptoms. The patient who develops this type of bipolar disorder normally only suffered from depression with no signs of mania before treatment."

And that mania disappears after discontinuing the SSRI. What makes this different than any other form of intoxication?

Reading on, the article describes "Bipolar V", which is supposed to be a diagnosis for those with depressive symptoms who have a family history of bipolar disorder (but do not have any manic/hypomanic/mixed symptoms). This seems extreme to me.

> Check out the classification proposals of Klerman and Akiskal. These ideas are nothing new.

I think this is only a proposal for a reason. Drug intoxication is probably best described as intoxication.

 

Re: Bipolar DX based only on SSRI hypomanic response?

Posted by creepy on June 24, 2013, at 23:49:59

In reply to Bipolar DX based only on SSRI hypomanic response?, posted by antennastoheaven on June 24, 2013, at 3:51:05

The DSM may not say it, but many docs consider SSRI induced hypomania to be a sign of bipolar.
Lamictal never got to 200mg+, right? below that point its mostly an antidepressant not much of a mood stabilizer. Id bet you went mixed / agitated on it before you got to a stabilizing dosage. Titrating up on lamictal can be very difficult. Anxiety, agitation, etc. Maybe adding a benzo or an AAP during titration might help?
You might also consider the atypical antipsychotics. Antagonizing serotonin receptors might give benefit without triggering hypomania.
unfortunately theres only a couple 'atypical' antidepressants that work like that. Nefazodone, vilazodone, trazodone. some TCAs like amitriptyline do as well.

 

Bipolar DX based on SSRI hypomania - Error

Posted by SLS on June 24, 2013, at 23:52:00

In reply to Bipolar DX based on SSRI hypomania » linkadge » antennastoheaven, posted by SLS on June 24, 2013, at 22:42:27

Sorry.

Please use the following link URL:

http://voices.yahoo.com/rare-bipolar-disorder-types-iv-v-vi-754271.html?cat=70

"Bipolar IV is identified when antidepressant medication causes a hypomanic or manic phase. The most common class of antidepressants that cause this reaction are SSRI's (selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors).Doctors who suspect bipolar disorder in depressed patients sometimes prescribe SSRI antidepressants to expose manic and hypomanic symptoms. The patient who develops this type of bipolar disorder normally only suffered from depression with no signs of mania before treatment."


- Scott

 

Re: Bipolar DX based only on SSRI hypomanic response? » creepy

Posted by SLS on June 25, 2013, at 0:01:26

In reply to Re: Bipolar DX based only on SSRI hypomanic response?, posted by creepy on June 24, 2013, at 23:49:59

> The DSM may not say it, but many docs consider SSRI induced hypomania to be a sign of bipolar.
> Lamictal never got to 200mg+, right? below that point its mostly an antidepressant not much of a mood stabilizer. Id bet you went mixed / agitated on it before you got to a stabilizing dosage. Titrating up on lamictal can be very difficult. Anxiety, agitation, etc. Maybe adding a benzo or an AAP during titration might help?
> You might also consider the atypical antipsychotics. Antagonizing serotonin receptors might give benefit without triggering hypomania.
> unfortunately theres only a couple 'atypical' antidepressants that work like that. Nefazodone, vilazodone, trazodone. some TCAs like amitriptyline do as well.

Currently, the only AP indicated for bipolar depression as monotherapy is Seroquel (quetiapine). Latuda (lurasidone) will be the second to be approved for this indication if things remain on track. Hopefully, Latuda will be less soporific than Seroquel and produce no weight gain.


- Scott

 

Re: Bipolar DX based only on SSRI hypomanic response? » creepy

Posted by antennastoheaven on June 25, 2013, at 0:21:09

In reply to Re: Bipolar DX based only on SSRI hypomanic response?, posted by creepy on June 24, 2013, at 23:49:59

> Lamictal never got to 200mg+, right? below that point its mostly an antidepressant not much of a mood stabilizer. Id bet you went mixed / agitated on it before you got to a stabilizing dosage. Titrating up on lamictal can be very difficult. Anxiety, agitation, etc. Maybe adding a benzo or an AAP during titration might help?

The only effect I ever felt on lamictal was numbness - constant boredom and severe anhedonia that made me suicidal - at 100 mg, never took more. No anxiety or agitation at any dose and no other notable side effects. I was on Abilify at the time and taking Xanax as needed (which wasn't often)

> You might also consider the atypical antipsychotics. Antagonizing serotonin receptors might give benefit without triggering hypomania.

What would an AAP/antagonist do for depressive symptoms in those who do not have manic/hypomanic symptoms to control? Benefits of agonists make sense, in the case of Abilify for example.

 

Re: Bipolar DX based only on SSRI hypomanic response?

Posted by polarbear206 on June 25, 2013, at 12:38:13

In reply to Re: Bipolar DX based only on SSRI hypomanic response? » creepy, posted by antennastoheaven on June 25, 2013, at 0:21:09

I think you are missing my point. Wellbutrin is not a strong enough AD for most with mod to severe depression. I think if you were on the right AD with the right mood stabilizer you would get a therapeutic respone. IF I'm correct, you were taking abilify and wellbutrin when you trialed lamictal? If so, I would consider this not a good idea to be on 2 mood dtabilizers at once with Wellbutrin. Ii had SSRI induced just as you. I am depression dominated. On Lamictal and Effexor for a very long time and works great.

 

Re: Bipolar DX based only on SSRI hypomanic response? » polarbear206

Posted by antennastoheaven on June 25, 2013, at 13:09:13

In reply to Re: Bipolar DX based only on SSRI hypomanic response?, posted by polarbear206 on June 25, 2013, at 12:38:13

> I think you are missing my point. Wellbutrin is not a strong enough AD for most with mod to severe depression. I think if you were on the right AD with the right mood stabilizer you would get a therapeutic respone. IF I'm correct, you were taking abilify and wellbutrin when you trialed lamictal? If so, I would consider this not a good idea to be on 2 mood dtabilizers at once with Wellbutrin. Ii had SSRI induced just as you. I am depression dominated. On Lamictal and Effexor for a very long time and works great.

Wellbutrin keeps me going to work, and addresses my motivation concerns. I'm not happy though. It doens't make me manic or hypomanic; just productive. I have no intention of stopping it unless I take another MAOI. Wellbutrin can be taken with other antidepressants so I could try other things.

 

Re: Bipolar DX based only on SSRI hypomanic response? » antennastoheaven

Posted by SLS on June 25, 2013, at 15:45:55

In reply to Re: Bipolar DX based only on SSRI hypomanic response? » polarbear206, posted by antennastoheaven on June 25, 2013, at 13:09:13

> > I think you are missing my point. Wellbutrin is not a strong enough AD for most with mod to severe depression. I think if you were on the right AD with the right mood stabilizer you would get a therapeutic respone. IF I'm correct, you were taking abilify and wellbutrin when you trialed lamictal? If so, I would consider this not a good idea to be on 2 mood dtabilizers at once with Wellbutrin. Ii had SSRI induced just as you. I am depression dominated. On Lamictal and Effexor for a very long time and works great.
>
> Wellbutrin keeps me going to work, and addresses my motivation concerns. I'm not happy though. It doens't make me manic or hypomanic; just productive. I have no intention of stopping it unless I take another MAOI. Wellbutrin can be taken with other antidepressants so I could try other things.


Wellbutrin can also be taken with a MAOI, despite official labeling to the contrary. Combining Nardil with Wellbutrin would offer you the possibility to adequately treat anhedonia. I will say that Wellbutrin makes a good adjunct to Pristiq.

Regarding Lamictal, a sizable percentage of people experience cognitive side effects with it. Common complaints are related to memory impairment and brain fog. It seems to me unusual that Lamictal should produce a biologically induced state of suicidality as might a drug like Prozac. Perhaps the brain fog and lack of positive effect frustrates and demoralizes you to the point of precipitating a psychogenic suicidal state. This might indicate a need for some form of psychotherapy.


- Scott

 

Re: Bipolar DX based only on SSRI hypomanic response? » SLS

Posted by antennastoheaven on June 25, 2013, at 17:43:18

In reply to Re: Bipolar DX based only on SSRI hypomanic response? » antennastoheaven, posted by SLS on June 25, 2013, at 15:45:55

> Wellbutrin can also be taken with a MAOI, despite official labeling to the contrary. Combining Nardil with Wellbutrin would offer you the possibility to adequately treat anhedonia. I will say that Wellbutrin makes a good adjunct to Pristiq.

Seems it would be difficult to get someone to prescribe a MAOI and Wellbutrin, although I'd be willing to try it. I have personally taken Adderall and Emsam together safely. It would be possible to get two different pdocs prescribing different things, but then I'd have to lie to each of them and I don't want to do that. Or get one of the drugs some other way, but that's also not something I want to do.

Emsam (selegiline) was rather sedating for me. I never went past the 6mg dose officially, but I left up to 3 patches on (still adding a new one daily) and felt no improvement. It didn't do anything for ADD symptoms and I found it more difficult to focus then usual, even though I didn't feel any cognitive deficit. From what I have read Parnate would be less likely to be sedating than Nardil or selegiline.

Because of the importance of being able to focus on sustained cognitively demanding tasks, I am reluctant to take any combination that would result in me not being able to take a stimulant or get a steady supply of them. However, right now is the time for me to try new things while I'm on disability.

> Regarding Lamictal, a sizable percentage of people experience cognitive side effects with it. Common complaints are related to memory impairment and brain fog. It seems to me unusual that Lamictal should produce a biologically induced state of suicidality as might a drug like Prozac. Perhaps the brain fog and lack of positive effect frustrates and demoralizes you to the point of precipitating a psychogenic suicidal state. This might indicate a need for some form of psychotherapy.

Lamotrigine has been linked to suicide. Here is one article: http://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/10.1002/pds.1932/abstract

The drug made me feel so empty that I wanted the feelings to end, and drugs as a form of escape from those feelings were insufficient. When I made the connection that the feelings started with an increased dose of Lamictal, the suicidal thoughts subsided. This seems like something the prescriber of the drug should have figured out, as increased suicide risk is known to be an issue and the FDA requires it to be labelled: http://www.fda.gov/Drugs/DrugSafety/PostmarketDrugSafetyInformationforPatientsandProviders/ucm100190.htm Yet I had to make the connection on my own,.

I have seen a therapist for a while and am currently in a partial hospitalization program. http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/psycho/20130309/msgs/1045521.html


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