Posted by shar on July 6, 2000, at 22:55:47
In reply to Re: An eloquent M.D. writes about genetic(s) hype..., posted by dj on July 6, 2000, at 19:31:30
With all due respect, and I mean that, and I am not trying to be antagonistic, I noticed that some of the people in the above posts and in other posts on this board, have indicated that they don't experience depression, anxiety, bipolar, etc. So, no need for therapy or meds, or both, they (I suppose) would be "normals".
So, I am sincerely curious why does someone post here that does not need the "support and education" offered by the Psych part of PsychoBabble? To make their opinions known to us, and perhaps change our lives/perspectives?
This especially would apply to the fellow with the initial post, that I didn't make it all the way through, who doesn't seem to "mesh" with this forum? I know it's a free country, and everyone has the right to post, but that seemed to be a more sociological/political/societal milieu oriented post.
I am curious, that's all. Obviously some of the PB's did read and respond to the post, so must have thought it was relevant.
BTW, I've been depressed without meds and then took meds. With meds is better, all things considered.
S
poster:shar
thread:39430
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20000630/msgs/39615.html