Posted by JackD on December 8, 2000, at 2:34:28
When an MAOI is classified as "irreversible", does that mean that the MAOs it neutralizes are permanently and irreparably inhibited? Or does it simply mean that the MAOs take longer to return to normal than with a "reversible" MAOI? My doctor told me the latter was true, but he doesn't know a ritalin from a tic tac. I've also heard that low dose Selegiline acts as a reversible MAOI anyway, and I'm wondering if this is true.
poster:JackD
thread:50174
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20001130/msgs/50174.html