Posted by Fred Potter on April 3, 2001, at 18:46:36
Even the title shows I don't know what I'm talking about. Elizabeth said Naltrexone wasn't a "good-feeling" drug. For pooped-out Prozac I found it made me feel marvellous (normal?) in about 3 days, and this was sustained until I ran out of money.
Can anyone explain the TIPS remark that imbalance between these systems can cause treatment resistant depression? How does clogging up opoid receptor sites, thus blocking my own endorphins, make me feel good?
Is Bupenorphrine effective in the same way as Naltrexone? In which case is it cheaper? I can't afford Naltrexone. Does Bupe also curb cravings for drink? Nalt did it so well, even at half the proper dose.
Questions . . . I look forward to your wise answers.
Thanks everyone
Fred
poster:Fred Potter
thread:58581
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20010403/msgs/58581.html