Posted by Abby on April 14, 2001, at 18:29:08
In full words my subject is
"Prevalence of true unipolar depression in treatment resistant populations."
What is your opinion of Hagop Akiskal's hypothesis that many people with chronic problems actually fall on a bipolar spectrum?
Clinically, what would you look for in a patient who presents only with depression which might predict a switch into hypomania?
What do you believe is the mechanism by which antidepressants (even new ones across different classes e.g. SSRIs, SNRIs and bupropion) cause a switch into hypomania rather than just a long term regulation in vulnerable individuals?
What suggestions do you have for treating bipolar depression now? And what do you think would be the pharmacokinetic properties of ADs less likely to induce mania and rapid cycling?
Thanks,
Abby
poster:Abby
thread:59866
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20010411/msgs/59866.html