Posted by PaulB on July 3, 2001, at 15:31:48
Although Modafinil is the newer version of Adrafinil and more expensive generally I read that the latter is the more popular. One of the things that didnt seem to be clear was whether Modafinil was like a classical stimulant such as ritalin and blocked the re-uptake of dopamine or whether it was an alpha1-adrenergic agonist. There seems to be overriding opinion that it is the latter although has some properties of DA re-uptake.
The interesting thing is that there could be further speculation as to how it exerts it alpha1 adrenergic agonist activity. A lot of agonists mimic the neurotrnamsitter to exert their therapeutic effects such as Buspirone and many newer drugs in development i.e. pagoclone, however it is so often written in webpages on these drugs that 'the basis of their UNIQUENESS lies in their ability to only stimulate when stimulation is required' This may explain why there tolerance potential is so low because they may just fill the receptor if no neurotranmsitter was present overwise there would be no point in taking them? This may also explain why you dont notice the alertness until the evening after norepinephrine usually decline. Any views??????
poster:PaulB
thread:68842
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20010701/msgs/68842.html