Posted by Sherry on August 19, 2001, at 19:23:10
In reply to Re: Can someone interpret this? » grapebubblegum, posted by Mitch on August 18, 2001, at 10:18:11
The primary action of anti-psychotics is to "block" or antagonize dopamine receptors to reduce symptoms of psychosis (esp. the "D2" receptor). The 2nd generation of anti-psychotics (so-called "atypical antipsychotics") have this property but in addition "block" or antagaonize serotonin (5-HT) receptors.
Please excuse my ignorance, but all this blocking of receptors sounds like to me it would at least theoretically cause a worsened depression. I thought that depression was caused by a shortage of the NT's binding to receptors. Am I way off base?
Sherry
poster:Sherry
thread:75266
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20010814/msgs/75621.html