Posted by MB on September 15, 2001, at 16:06:24
In reply to Re: DXM in Ecstasy » MB, posted by Elizabeth on September 12, 2001, at 13:34:12
> > but I guess I should only use it when refering to a drug that actual induces psychosis. If someone has latent psychosis, and a drug causes it to manifest, can we say that that drug was psychotomimetic for that person?
>
> I suppose. I would just say that it triggered an episode -- the drug effect isn't believed to be the ultimate cause of psychosis, the predisposition is.
>
> -elizabeth
Gotcha...because the drug effects in that case wouldn't be "mimicking" psychosis, they'd be unveiling a psychosis already present.By the way, I really obsess over semantics. It drives my friends crazy < g > heh heh, sorry.
poster:MB
thread:78291
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20010907/msgs/78809.html