Posted by Mr. Scott on February 6, 2002, at 3:37:57
In reply to Re: Bipolar III? » spike4848, posted by Ritch on February 5, 2002, at 23:34:16
> > >Bipolar III means hyperthymic temperament: i was hyperthymic before i got depressed.
> >
> > I though bipolar III was a hypomanic response to antidepressents with no previous history of mania/hypomania off meds? And I still think pdocs are debating whether or not a hypomanic response to antidepressant is an indication the individual is bipolar ....
> >
> > Spike
>
>
> Hi Spike, et al,
>
> I think the APA is seriously considering the BP-III subcategory. It doesn't surprise me considering the ever increasing number of new and more potent antidepressants becoming available and the increased exposure of the general population to antidepressant medications. There are so many agents around that have the capability of triggering hypomania and mania-I personally think that it *might* be incorrect to assume that the meds are "uncovering" a "latent bipolar disorder". Perhaps if you give a normal person (no psycho-pathology) some of these new meds you will start seeing some manic and hypomanic responses as a side-effect....well that does complicate things now doesn't it??
>
> MitchMitch this is very true and a solid point. If you give people enough stimulants they will run an increasing risk of becoming psychotic. Does that mean they are uncovering schizophrenia? I don't think so.
Scott
poster:Mr. Scott
thread:92893
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20020131/msgs/93050.html