Posted by Janelle on March 15, 2002, at 2:40:30
The same med (say Serzone) can both block certain receptors from getting Norepinephrine and also do the reuptake inhibiting thing to other receptors? This seems weird, like the med is defeating its own purpose!
I ask this because you said "there is something sitting on the alpha-1 receptor blocking some norepinephrine, but at the same time the reuptake inhibitor is causing more norepinephrine to "hang around" at the receiving neuron."
WHAT is that something sitting on the alpha-1 receptor (which I gather is a receiving neuron) blocking some NE?
Thanks
-Janelle
poster:Janelle
thread:98097
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20020313/msgs/98097.html