Posted by Hal on March 17, 2002, at 18:23:48
In reply to Re: Still would try Nardil/Parnate, posted by Geezer on March 17, 2002, at 16:18:56
> > In my opinion any pdoc that treats a Bipolar patient (thank God for the differential DX) with an AD, without first stabilizing the patients mood, should be subject to charges for mal-practice.
> > >
> > > Geezer
> >
> > I agree 100%. But I disagree with doctors who label a depressed patient not responding to an antidepressant as bipolar II. I think Ross mentioned he has never had mania and only has experienced depression and anxiety. Now if a patient has had episodes of hypomania or dysphoric mania or rapid cyclicing, treat with a mood stalizer. Even still, most individual with bipolar ended up needing an antidepressant in the long run.
> >
> > Sorry to hear you went through such an ordeal.
> >
> > Hal
>
> Looks like we are all in agreement. The only problem I had with Bipolar II DX was I didn't know I was Bipolar II until I was 57 years old. The reason......hypo-mania felt perfectly normal to me, and the old quack I was being treated by only saw me when I was severally depressed. I suppose the issue should be left up to Ross; if he agrees with his pdocs DX then he has the option to follow her recomendations or not. If he disagrees with the DX then he is free to follow another mode of treatment. In any case Ross I wish you well.
>
> GeezerHey Geezer,
I had an experience opposite to yourself. I have had depression for many years, and tried to convince my pdoc I did not respond to SSRI/effexor because *I* thought I must be bipolar since my father is bipolar. I went through lithium, lamictal, neurontin. In the end, nardil worked.
But who knows, maybe I will have a manic episode in the future. I wish you and Ross the best.
Your Friend,
Hal
poster:Hal
thread:97961
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20020313/msgs/98498.html