Posted by fachad on March 30, 2002, at 6:10:28
In reply to Need help w/ some TERMINOLOGY (what's new!), posted by Janelle on March 30, 2002, at 2:08:56
Janelle,
I'm glad to see you here again!
Take another look a this previous thread
http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20020322/msgs/99447.html
A drug "fits" into a receptor site because it is chemically similar to a neurotransmitter. When it (the drug) "clicks" into the receptor, it either does the same thing as the natural neurotransmitter (an agonist), or it "fills in the hole" on the receptor and does not do anything, preventing the natural neurotransmitter from doing it's thing (an antagonist).
A few book recommendations for you:
Clinical Psychopharmacology Made Ridiculously Simple (Medmaster Series, 2001 Edition)
http://www.amazon.com/exec/obidos/ASIN/0940780445/drbobsvirte00-20
and
A Primer of Drug Action : A Concise, Nontechnical Guide to the Actions, Uses, and Side Effects of Psychoactive Drugs
http://www.amazon.com/exec/obidos/ASIN/0716744449/drbobsvirte00-20
Both books are the best I've seen to explain the types of questions that you are brimming with. Amazon.com even has a deal where you can buy both books as a package deal for $34.
Or you can just ask questions here, for free!
> Okay, I'm confused yet again with some terminology I've read on here!
>
> I thought I knew what *antagonize* meant, but apparently I do not know what this means in pyschiatric context.
>
> So, what does it mean when a med ANTAGONIZES a receptor?
>
> What does it mean when a med is AGONISTIC to a receptor?
>
> Thanks!
poster:fachad
thread:100946
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20020327/msgs/100956.html