Posted by fachad on April 3, 2002, at 17:10:48
In reply to pharmaceutical dissection?, posted by crepuscular on April 3, 2002, at 16:39:23
There are a few cases where I know this works.
If a person who was thought to be unipolar depressed goes manic on a TCA, you could infer that they were bipolar, and you could say that the med response had diagnostic value.
Children who are calmed by stimulants are said to have ADD, again, med response with diagnostic value.
Beyond that, I don't know any.
> reading through the many posts here, it is amazing to see how different drugs affect different people. on the one hand we have a cluster of symptoms that might be similar between people and result in an identical diagnosis.
>
> on the other, we have the medications they respond to, which might be completely different. what role - if any - might the class of medication which one responds to play in the assignment of an actual diagnosis?
>
> short of actually having a conversation with the neurons themselves, perhaps subtypes of these disorders could be identified by medication responses.
>
> or maybe it's too idiosyncratic for any kind of generalization. any thoughts on this?
poster:fachad
thread:101711
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20020402/msgs/101715.html