Posted by zeugma on April 25, 2003, at 16:11:13
In reply to Re: Anafrinil--most potent AD?????, posted by McPac on April 25, 2003, at 15:46:48
> "which means it's a powerful norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor".
>
> >>>>>>Doesn't that mean that it, in effect, INcreases the norepinephrine effect? And isn't norepinephrine like adrenaline (gets you going)? So, "IF" that is so then how come Anafranil 'oversedates' most people (it knocked me OUT!)The sedative effect of Anafranil comes from its antihistamine effect (Benadryl will do the same thing). The norepinephrine effect will essentially restore the noradrenergic system to relative balance, in the process causing stimulation, irritability, etc., as possible reactions. Clomipramine has still other actions, such as 5-HT2A antagonism, which can calm one down, so it's a complex drug, and can energize people through one pharmacological route while sedating them through another.
This is doubtless the reason why Effexor has been more widely used even though it's 'weaker.' The drug developers are trying to simplify the pharmacologies of the drugs so desired effects aren't balanced out by undesired ones. That's the theory, but I don't think it works exactly that way in practice. And it's also the case that the line between 'desired' and 'undesired' effects isn't always as clear to the person who takes the drug as it is to the drug company or prescriber.
poster:zeugma
thread:222185
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20030423/msgs/222381.html