Posted by bookgurl99 on June 10, 2003, at 1:31:13
I'm noticing that I'm having far less migraines off zoloft than I did on zoloft. Like, half as many. They are more likely to have pain associated with them now, but the aura symptoms -- confusion, visual distortion, etc. -- are much better.
I have more than when I was on Serzone. What could the difference be?
And, when I was a kid, I often fainted after physical activity such as playing outside or gym class. My vision would go black, or I would just wake up on the floor. Just going from cold to warm weather or playing tag in gym could make it happen. This was annoying, as I really wanted to be tough.
All the usual tests were done (heart, diabetes, epilepsy, sleep studies, etc.). Nothing was found at the time, until I had my last fainting spell in the high Andes mountains at age 16.
I'm wondering now if what I had as a child could be related to that I'm easily triggered into having migraines? Thoughts?
poster:bookgurl99
thread:232819
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20030609/msgs/232819.html