Posted by profiles on March 13, 2004, at 0:08:28
Forgive me if it's a dumb question but: why is insomnia a common SSRIs SE? if they increase serotonin levels and serotonin is a melatonin precursor?
Or is it because SSRIs increase serotonin levels inhibiting reuptake, thus leaving it on the synapse and then less of it becomes melatonin?
Or is it related to the quantities of pineal SNAT & MAO? What really happens during the 2 step conversion of serotonin into melatonin?I can't sleep tonight :(
poster:profiles
thread:323828
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20040308/msgs/323828.html