Posted by rod on May 8, 2004, at 9:46:02
In reply to Re: Mirapex or Abilify? Anyone tried both?, posted by harryp on May 8, 2004, at 8:57:04
> I'm a little confused. You're taking an antipsychotic (amilsulpride) now that is a dopamine antagonist (blocks dopamine receptors), yet are considering a drug (Mirapex) that is a dopamine agonist (activates dopamine receptors)! You would be taking two drugs with opposite effect, and the results would be hard to predict.
>Basically you are right, if I would take e.g. 2000mg of Amisulpride, which is used for positive schizophrenia. But I take a subeffective dose (50mg) which acts as a dopamine presynaptic *auto*receptor antagonist (= increased dopaminergic transmission). So Amisulpride is a indirect agonist at D receptors for me.
Adding Mirapex or Abilify would further increase dopaminergic neurotransmission, because I am almost sure there is no overstiulation that needs to be blocked by Abilify. I really think (aswell as my doc) Abilify will boost my dopamine instead of antagonising it.
> Abilify is a "partial agonist" of Dopamine, and supposedly "normalizes" dopamine levels--although I suspect in most cases it acts as an antagonist. Taking it along with amilsulpride also seems contradictory and unwise.
>
> What symptoms are you trying to control?Lack of motivation, increased need for sleep, flat emotions, social isolation, low self esteem, "poverty of speech" (I am a very quiet person) etc. the dystymic spectrum and the deficit syndrome spectrum. These things are related to dopamine. Dopaminergics work much better than serotonergics for dystymia for example.
poster:rod
thread:344691
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20040505/msgs/344735.html