Posted by Viridis on June 9, 2004, at 3:25:41
In reply to Is AD induced hypomania indicative of BP?, posted by nmk on June 7, 2004, at 12:28:43
I think this is what's now called "BP III" by some. However, I have had bad reactions to SSRIs, including lasting anxiety and rapidly changing moods, and question whether this really indicates a form of BP disorder.
When my pdoc prescribed a very low dose of Zoloft and I experienced extreme mood swings, he simply told me to stop taking it, and that we'd try other meds. I asked if this was indicative of bipolar disorder, and he said not necessarily -- quite a few people just can't tolerate SSRIs, in his experience. He seems to be quite conservative when diagnosing bipolarity (although he has suggested that I may be cyclothymic, and Lamictal, a mood stabilizer, seems to help).
Although he hasn't said so outright, I get the feeling that he considers "BP" to be an overused diagnosis. Not that it isn't real -- I just get the impression that having been around quite a while, he's seen a lot of trends come and go and is somewhat skeptical of the latest fads. He does do an excellent job of managing complex problems, though, listens to his patients, and seems quite willing to prescribe whatever combination it takes (within reason). This guy, at least, seems more interested in getting patients back to normality than "labeling" them.
poster:Viridis
thread:354536
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20040608/msgs/354993.html