Posted by linkadge on August 5, 2004, at 7:50:11
In reply to Re: not exactly true » linkadge, posted by RetiredYoung on August 4, 2004, at 15:33:54
What this site is trying to say is that many people do not *feel* the effect of the norepinephrine increase until it gets into the higher dose range. But this does not mean it does not effect norepinephrine in the lower dose range.
The molecule affects norepinephrine as soon as it reaches the uptake sites.
I'm just really after the wording. Most people incorrectly say that effexor has no effect on norepinephrine in the lower doses, but what they mean to say is that effexor's effect on norepinephrine is not generally not noticable till the higher doses.The brain's workings are generally not binary.
The molecule will always effect the uptake sites in a fixed ratio, meaning if it is increasing serotonin, then it is increasing norepinephrine to say 1/3 the level of the serotonin increase. Or whatever the ratio happens to be.You can ask chemist if you want a more detailed explainaition.
Linkadge
poster:linkadge
thread:373918
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20040805/msgs/374275.html