Posted by Maxime on June 7, 2005, at 14:21:47
I think we have had this discussion before. About where generic versions of a med are as good as the brand.
The only reason I am bringing it up again is because when I saw the psychopharmacologist he asked me whether I had taken generic Prozac or the brand version when it pooped out on me. I asked him if it made a difference and he said that if I had been taking the brand name and then switched to the generic form it could be one of the reasons it stopped working.
Has anyone come across any articles about this? What are your thoughts?
Cheers,
Maxi
poster:Maxime
thread:509126
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20050606/msgs/509126.html