Posted by yxibow on December 13, 2005, at 1:11:00
In reply to Serax Generic less effective than Serax - Why?, posted by becksA on December 11, 2005, at 12:11:52
> I am no longer available to get Serax, I have to get Oxazepam, and for the first couple days of using it I notice a definite decrease in effectiveness. The tension/anxiety has gone back up. Is this common with a generic? Why would this happen?
> ThanksThe placebo affect believe it or not can affect things up to 30%. But I'm not suggesting that's the case here.
I believe the FDA requirements are 80-120% of the non-generic drugs affect on your body, with various medical terms like AUC and the like... I don't remember... maybe eduk or one of the others can fill me in.
In the long run generic benzodiazepines are far cheaper than their brand names, sometimes falling below a copay amount. In fact I dont know of all that many that are even non generic today, save for the patent extender Xanax XR. My doctor doesnt even write Valium as valium on the prescription.
There was a case, at least here in california I think, where Mylan (big benzo generic maker) bought up all the raw ingredients and caused a litigation on pricing. But generally, the generics are as safe as the original.
I would say the only case where one should monitor, is if one is switching from something like Klonopin (I dont even know if the patented one is still milled) for epilepsy to a generic version.
My 2c
poster:yxibow
thread:588049
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20051211/msgs/588578.html