Posted by tygereyes on March 30, 2006, at 20:58:12
In reply to Re: Atypical antipsychotics as prophylaxis?, posted by med_empowered on March 30, 2006, at 12:00:51
What I meant by prophylactic antipsychotics are those who exhibit "pre-schizophrenic" symptoms. For example, one psychotic episode that might or might not be schizophrenia. Rather than tapering the AP once the episode has resolved, the person stays on the med to "prevent" (in a way) the development of schizophrenia. Kind of like the kindling effect, in reverse.
poster:tygereyes
thread:626377
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20060329/msgs/626855.html