Posted by zeugma on April 2, 2006, at 12:28:54
In reply to Re: Is Valium more potent than Xanax? » SLS, posted by ed_uk on March 31, 2006, at 16:46:24
It's often noted than the benzodiazepines differ more in their pharmacokinetics than in their pharmacodynamics.>>
Hi Ed.
The often-noted greater prevalence of depression as a result of clonazepam relative to other benzos, would appear to disprove this.
BTW I have not experienced depressive symtoms from clonazepam, and the problems I have had with sleep architecture disruption would be common to all benzodiazepines (as far as I know). Benzos suppress NREM stages 3-4 preferentially, presumably as part of their mechanism of anticonvulsant action, and they incidentally reduce REM because one normally enters REM after cycling through NREM stages 1-4. Blockade of NREM 3-4 in someone who does not exhibit this pattern, however, will experience increased REM by means of a process analogous to displacement in physics (if you put a bar of soap in a tub full of water, the tub will overspill, even though no water has been added).
It is a common misconception that benzos block REM, as an intrinsic property of theirs, as evidenced by an authoritative survey I have in my file, which contains many other inaccuracies, but which I will linger on now.
-z
Ed
poster:zeugma
thread:627071
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20060329/msgs/627822.html