Posted by Phillipa on June 2, 2006, at 13:34:24
It seems as if a person doesn't respond now to an antidepressant they are termed treatment resistant and some type of bipolar. Do you think it's true or is it a marketing ploy or the fact that pdocs don't know what to do with people who don't respond to antidepressants. Should make for a good discussion. Thanks Maybe we can all learn something
poster:Phillipa
thread:651955
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20060530/msgs/651955.html