Posted by idolamine on June 30, 2006, at 20:17:22
In reply to Re: why does serotonin decrease available dopamine » idolamine, posted by SLS on June 30, 2006, at 8:28:52
I agree. What about prolactin? I've found that amotivational symptoms can arise in as few as three days on a good 20mg dose fluoxetine. So far I'm having good fortune on 5mg every other other day. I think the kinetics of this medicine are sometimes ignored. James.
> > specifically, what are the kinetics of the decrease in dopamine over a course of ssri treatment? I ask because I'm taking a 5mg prozac every other day, which was too much as far as affecting my motivation, and then to every 3rd day, and now to every 4th. Prozac has a long half-life. thanks!
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> I'm not sure that the dopamine depletion model of SSRI induced apathy is valid. I have never seen the specific mechanisms of this theory dilineated. It seems more reasonable to me that dopaminergic neurotransmission is being inhibited by the increase in serotonergic activity produced by these drugs. There might be a two to three week latency between the initiation of drug treatment and the appearance of the apathy and amotivation as serotonergic activity reaches a maximum. This observed latency may have caused some people to assume a process of depletion rather than a delayed increase in inhibitory neurotransmission.
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> - Scott
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poster:idolamine
thread:661908
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20060623/msgs/663028.html