Posted by Racer on October 13, 2006, at 12:56:04
In reply to Re: Question about stimulants and ADHD (and brief OCD) » Racer, posted by saturn on October 13, 2006, at 6:42:06
>
>
> I personally cannot see how this might correlate to ADHD however.Her thinking, as far as I could tell, was that since stimulants would increase stimulation and calm hyperactivity in someone with ADHD, then something that was supposed to calm someone else would therefor activate someone with ADHD. My answer was simple: the one doesn't follow the other. Just because stimulants are useful for the symptoms of one disorder, does not mean that anxiolytics will exacerbate the symptoms. {If A then B} does not equal {if B then A}. (In other words, my attempt to explain why she was wrong was based on logic, not science...)
In my own experience, benzos are lousy for me when I'm anxious. I think what happens is that their effects make me feel more vulnerable, so I get even more adrenaline going. That's just my thinking on it, it may not be what's happened, but I've had bad experiences with them -- including blackouts -- so I know they can create that sort of problem. And I do settle down better on Ritalin. But while that may be evidence that her thinking has some basis -- I'm not the one she was talking to and about, but I do get more anxious on benzos and calmer on stims -- I don't think it's because my chemistry is such that all drugs will work backwards on me. (In fact, I think that's an idiotic theory...)
OK, so since I've just proven that my attempt to explain the fallacy is pretty pathetic, can anyone give me a better and more accurate explanation?
Thanks!
poster:Racer
thread:694246
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20061011/msgs/694490.html