Posted by med_empowered on November 13, 2006, at 22:57:47
that lots of drugs/methods for dealing with mental issues involve suppressing normal brain function? I'm not saying it **HAS** to be that way but...why is it? Do you think it reflects some built-in idea within psychiatry that the brain must be disabled to be "fixed"? Kind of like the brain-damage-as-treatment ideas of the 30s-60s (arguably continuing somewhat into the present).
poster:med_empowered
thread:703304
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20061110/msgs/703304.html