Posted by med_empowered on January 15, 2007, at 20:32:22
In reply to Re: VYVANSE™ ??, posted by notfred on January 15, 2007, at 20:19:42
yeah but...seriously: if its in schedule II, how are there any real benefits? And, if its still in schedule II, can they really say its **that** much less abusable? All I see is added expense and no real benefit for doc or consumer, except maybe that docs can treat former substance abusers with amphetamines (**maybe**).
So..does it have to be in schedule II just b/c its an amphetamine? Wasn't there an effort a couple years ago to re-schedule Ritalin to schedule III?
poster:med_empowered
thread:722218
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20070113/msgs/722701.html