Posted by Malcolm64 on May 7, 2007, at 16:29:26
I've written several times on this board on the fantastic result I had with Nardil about a year ago. It vaporized (and there's no other word that can describe it) my social anxiety unlike any med I've ever tried (I'm now experimenting with Parnate, although at 30 mg, I haven't even come close to reaching the theraputic dose). BTW, what is the theraputic dose of Parnate?
My question for other board members is why Nardil had such a short-lived reaction?
B/C for those few weeks, I literally felt on top of the world: there was nothing I felt I couldn't do - make a speech to a group of people, be the head of a nonprofit (or a similar leadership position), approach just about any stranger with virtually no hesitation whatsoever. I felt engaged with the world in a way that I've never felt before, nor since the med stopped working.
Since I don't understand the psychoparmacology of these drugs nor how they work, and I know that there are a few folks in here who probably know more about these meds than many docs, I was hoping that someone would be willing to spend a few minutes explaining the Nardil poop out.
Not to go on and on and on about it, but those few weeks last year will forever be etched in my memory as the happiest I've ever been. I'm just hoping that I can recapture it with the Parnate and augment it with another med so that it continues to work.
But back to my question, why did the Nardil stop working? And if the Parnate achieves a similar result, wll its effect also be short-lived? GOD, I HOPE NOT!!
poster:Malcolm64
thread:756558
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20070502/msgs/756558.html