Posted by med_empowered on July 27, 2007, at 11:02:19
In reply to Should all drugs be generic?, posted by Squiggles on July 27, 2007, at 8:49:38
the laws on the vary from country to country. In India, a patent is issued only for the process to get a certain molecule. So, for zyprexa, India only recognizes Eli Lilly's process to get the olanzapine molecule. Other companies have found other ways to get the same molecule, so they can market their versions of Olanzapine.
There are some companies, like Teva, that seem to specialize in generics. There's lots of $$$ to be made, especially in the US, if they can get the first rights to a generic. Then they have 6months of being the only manufacturer of that generic product, which means: a)they can charge more and b)they can establish market dominance for a particular drug, especially if its got a somewhat limited market.
poster:med_empowered
thread:772306
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20070719/msgs/772315.html