Posted by kaleidoscope on November 18, 2007, at 16:46:53
In reply to Re: Lexapro/Celexa: The Best for Anxiety? Differen » kaleidoscope, posted by tecknohed on November 14, 2007, at 4:11:57
Hi K
>I mean, isn't it possible that the R-isomer can still cause unwanted side effects even though its not the 'theraputic' part of citalopram?
Yes, it's possible, although I don't think it's a problem for most people. The major side effects and the therapeutic effects of both escitalopram and citalopram are both mediated via serotonin reuptake inhibition eg. by the S-isomer.
>Also, isn't it true that BOTH isomers of some meds are both active 'theraputically' (I forget which ones)
Yes, this is true for some meds. An example is mirtazapine - its isomers are both pharmacologically active but have different effects.
It is common for people to say that Lexapro and citalopram have affected them differently ......but........it's important to remember that the exact same med can affect people differently at different times in their life. A good example is that someone can respond well to an AD at one point but not when they try it again at a later date. In most cases, I do not believe that the reported differences between Lexapro and citalopram are pharmacological in nature. It is also important to bear in mind that some of the reported differences between the two products may be the result of non-equivalent doses.
poster:kaleidoscope
thread:794618
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20071115/msgs/795795.html