Posted by SLS on February 18, 2009, at 20:33:02
In reply to Re: 2-1/2 years later have permanent withdrawal sympto, posted by bleauberry on February 18, 2009, at 17:41:39
Hi Bleauberry.
You may be right about the opioid system being involved with venlafaxine specifically, and it probably has nothing to do with its molecular similarity to tramadol. It does not act directly at opioid receptors.
http://cat.inist.fr/?aModele=afficheN&cpsidt=15767650
I found a few interesting articles on Google attributing the analgesic (antinociceptive) opioid properties of venlafaxine to effects secondary to its actions upon neurotransmission in the locus ceruleus. Apparantly, both venlafaxine and mirtazapine are the only two antidepressant drugs for which this is true. Perhaps this is why there is a special synergism between venlafaxine and mirtazapine when combined to create "California rocket fuel".
http://www.opioids.com/depression/antidepressants.html
- Scott
poster:SLS
thread:880481
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20090213/msgs/880984.html