Posted by g_g_g_unit on November 2, 2009, at 15:00:18
when a patient is hospitalized for a psychiatric illness, by their own admission, do they cede all free will over to the hospital psychiatrist? i.e. do they have any say over what they are prescribed, what may have worked in the past, etc. or is the hospital basically free to consult the patient's prior treatment professionals and prescribe at will? this is of course assuming that the patient (i.e. me) does not exhibit any psychotic features, and expresses a suitable grip on reality.
i am just curious because i feel so angry about the way my Parnate trial was conducted that i am on the verge of giving up. i know part of this is withdrawal (Nardil's was hell). but i also have no real faith in any treatment options left to me, outside of going back on Nardil. i just don't know if i could handle going through the titration period on my own, so i was wondering if i was hospitalized and told them i had a positive response to it in the past, i could rapidly be titrated to a high dose and monitored for insomnia, etc.
or would a public hospital simply go by-the-book w/r/t OCD and put me on Paxil or something?
poster:g_g_g_unit
thread:924123
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20091029/msgs/924123.html