Posted by Lou Pilder on September 1, 2011, at 19:15:13
In reply to Amisulpride, posted by kieran2585 on September 1, 2011, at 15:31:42
> hi, i was recently precribed Amisulpride at 50mg, mainly for social anxiety, though i was briefly on this medication before, about five years ago where i was only taking 12.5mg-25mg and for the first 3 days i felt it really helped me, it made a huge differance, just after only 2 hours from the first dose, and it was great while it lasted, then it seemed to fade away, i stuck with it for 4 weeks but it didnt help again, the third week i upped it to 50mg but that didnt help either, so i stopped taking it, now i couldnt help but think maybe it might have worked again if i stayed on it a little longer, say 6 weeks? now ive just started again yesterday at 50mg and im not noticing anything at all, not like i did when i took it 5 years ago, is it possible that 50mg is too high a dose? to the point where it wont work for me at all?
kieran,
You wrote,[...Amisulpride...years ago...felt it..helped...it didn't help again...won't work for me at all?...].
There is the possibility when people take a drug that they will have a response that they are expecting. And in experiments where people are expecting a response that are given a dummy pill that looks like the real pill, some have the response that they are expecting.
Many charltans going back thousands of years sold tonics and such that promised an effect. And many received the effect because they expected it. Some of these tonics were harmless concoctions of herbs and such. But some had something in them that the taker could feel, such as alcohol or opium. So the jolting in and of itself gave the person expecting the response even more expectation of a response. Then addiction could occur and the takers were to pay the price sometimes for the rest of their lives or even die from the drug while having to go back to the panderer of the tonic to avoid withdrawal. Their lives became controlled by the drug in the tonic and the panderer. In some cultures,historically, those pandering concoctions that promise to treat a symptom, if caught, were executed.
Now today's psychotropic drugs could induce a mind-alterd state so that the taker could become compelled to kill themselves, as listed as a black-box warning. There is an ongoing collection of cases where people on mind-altering drugs murder others. One of the defenses of the doctors that give these drugs is that {the benefits outweigh the risk}. And what about a fetus that gets birth defects from the drug? How could the benefits outweigh the risks for them? And if the drug caused the taker to murder others, how could the benefits outweigh the risks for those murdered?
Now as to your questions here, you could have an effect if you expect one. And you could die from the same drug as well. This is because the drug is what it is. It could be a {nerve agent}. And how could one know if the agent could or could not attack the nerves to the heart and cause a fatal heart attack? Or liver failure? Or a fatal blood disease?
You could get many responses here from others that take these mind-altering drugs. But one of the arguments if the drug doesn't do to you what it does to them is that [everyone is different}. If that argument stands, then how could anyone tell another to try a drug? If there is no effect, there could be a life-ruining condition brought on by the drug, such as diabetes or tardive dyskinesia. And then, the argument can become,{the benefit outweighs the risk}. I say, could you think upon that?
Lou
poster:Lou Pilder
thread:995530
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20110822/msgs/995550.html