Posted by g_g_g_unit on March 22, 2012, at 20:21:32
Is it true that dosing after 3pm is more likely to produce insomnia? Is there any reason why this might be? People cite the 'stimulant' effect, but since its duration is only 2-3 hours, should evening dosing technically be okay?
The reason I ask is because - as sad or strange as it might be - I seem to respond best to 2.5mg doses. I'm going to maybe investigate some way to reduce sensitivity (i.e. a benzo), permitting my pdoc agrees, in the hope that I can reach a therapeutic dose, but in the meantime splitting my dose up into 2.5mg segments would mean dosing into the evening.
poster:g_g_g_unit
thread:1013661
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20120316/msgs/1013661.html