Posted by SLS on May 10, 2012, at 20:50:02
In reply to Re: Melancholic vs Atypical depression, posted by policebox on May 10, 2012, at 20:16:03
> > > I can't see how you could be have both melancholic and atypical depression, as the diagnoses are mutually exclusive.
> > Where did you read or hear this?
> It's common sense.
That's not what I asked.
I am not inclined to accept the conclusions you derive from your common sense as being fact. I was hoping you could produce some facts or theories that would preclude the existence of a hybridization of depressive symptoms between those seen in atypical and melancholic presentations.
> A person can't both be fat and thin simultaneously the majority of the time.
I don't think your analogy fits, but, okay.
If atypical and melancholic phenotypes represent different genotypes, perhaps one can have the genotypes for both disorders simultaneously. This would be analogous to someone having lupis and diabetic nephropathy simulataneously. This is just my attempt at exercising common sense. It is far from being fact. It is only speculative.
> Similarly, you can't, the majority of the time, have have an inability to feel pleasure over positive things and have the ability to feel pleasure over positive things.I'm not sure what you are talking about here.
Mood reactivity is no longer considered to be a reliable indicator of atypical depression. You can have atypical depression without being able to feel pleasure.
As I said, I would describe bipolar depression as being a hybrid of atypical and melancholic depressions.
The definition of atypical depression is far from being globally agreed upon.
http://www.mcmanweb.com/atypical_depression.html
- ScottSome see things as they are and ask why.
I dream of things that never were and ask why not.- George Bernard Shaw
poster:SLS
thread:1017453
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20120508/msgs/1017683.html