Posted by Jeroen on October 16, 2012, at 16:58:09
This is what a psychiatrist sais i found it on crazymeds.us!!!
In any event, it's theoretically possible that a changing from brand to generic could result in a med working again. But I don't think it would be due to inactive ingredients or those uncommon times when the generic contains more of the active ingredient than the brand name version. I think it would be if the brand name drug is sold to another manufacturer, production is moved to another facility or you get the meds from a new facility for some reason.
poster:Jeroen
thread:1028877
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20121009/msgs/1028877.html