Posted by antennastoheaven on June 24, 2013, at 4:42:16
In reply to Bipolar DX based only on SSRI hypomanic response?, posted by antennastoheaven on June 24, 2013, at 3:51:05
After reading through the DSM-IV-TR criteria more thoroughly, it looks like the criteria for manic episodes are more closely met than the criteria for hypomanic episodes because hypomanic episodes exlucde occupational disruption (which happened to me). So based on that, Bipolar I is more appropriate than Bipolar II.
But since the full criteria for a manic episode aren't met (since the behavior was induced by medications), neither bipolar diagnosis is correct.
poster:antennastoheaven
thread:1045773
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20130617/msgs/1045774.html