Posted by desolationrower on May 1, 2011, at 17:28:34
In reply to Buspar acts differently with SSRI?, posted by mikez on April 26, 2011, at 22:19:50
its a partial agonist at 5ht1a receptors. So by itself, it causes more activity, but it causes less than would occur if you let an ssri work.
Sort of like how the same 200$ bank account means i'm a rich man if i visit guatamala, but a poor man when i visit london.
-d/r
Better living through chemistry, socialism, and big phallic rockets (with a side of roquette)
poster:desolationrower
thread:983855
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/neuro/20100607/msgs/984300.html