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Dr. Bob is Robert Hsiung, MD,
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Posted by iforgotmypassword on August 30, 2009, at 16:54:35
is seems that it changes depending on the region of the brain.
in the striatum, it is a straight antagonist. it seems that it has more instances of straight post-synaptic antagonism than partial agonism, only really being an agonist at autoreceptors.
not a settling trait.
in terms of increasing VTA dopaminergic function, it's strong 5-ht1a partial agonism is also spoiled by it's D2 partial agonism, agonising D2 autoreceptors, cutting off VTA dopminergic projections severely, and perhaps causing akathisia very similarly to how SSRIs do.
Posted by desolationrower on August 30, 2009, at 17:45:48
In reply to is abilify a post-synaptic D2 antagonist in pfc?, posted by iforgotmypassword on August 30, 2009, at 16:54:35
i think even small amounts get >90% occupancy
so the answer is just in relation to how much DA activity was occuring beforehanad
-d/r
Posted by iforgotmypassword on August 31, 2009, at 19:25:14
In reply to Re: is abilify a post-synaptic D2 antagonist in pfc?, posted by desolationrower on August 30, 2009, at 17:45:48
in some cases it's an agonist, based on it's occupancy and it being far less an agonist than DA, it's technically lowering dopaminergic agonism in general, and others cases not.
though apparently this differs regionally.
in many cases it isn't even an agonist to start with but a straight post-synaptic antagonist (e.g. in the striatum), so i am wondering what is its effects specifically are, in terms of intrinsic efficacy (as an agonist or antagonist) in the PFC, or in different parts of the PFC.
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