Posted by ed_uk on December 6, 2004, at 5:48:28
In reply to Re: DSM versus ICD, posted by SLS on December 6, 2004, at 0:55:59
Bipolar II seems to be a 'fashionable' diagnosis among psychiatrists at the moment. I think it may be overdiagnosed, especially in people who suffer from chronic depression but have unusual reactions to antidepressants. The problem with the current 'expansion' of the bipolar spectrum is that the term bipolar is at risk of becoming meaningless. The concept of manic-depression used to be quite specific and many people who are currently diagnosed as bipolar would be excluded. Some people see the 'expansion' of bipolar disorder as an advance, I'm not so sure.... the boundaries of bipolar disorder seem to be getting increasingly vague to the extent that if somone tells you that they are bipolar, it doesn't tell you that much.
I think Elizabeth put it well in 2002...
'I still think that bipolar II is probably overdiagnosed, though. I never have a clear idea what people mean when they say, "I have bipolar II disorder." The definition has become vague, the boundaries blurred. Even bipolar I gets confusing when you're talking about mixed episodes, rapid-cycling, comorbid disorders, etc. I'm sure you've noticed how the concept of bipolar disorder has become diluted in recent years.'
Regards,
Ed.
poster:ed_uk
thread:422741
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20041206/msgs/425132.html