Posted by ed_uk on December 6, 2004, at 8:52:50
In reply to Re: Bipolar II, posted by SLS on December 6, 2004, at 8:28:06
Hi Scott,
To me, it seems highly improbable that any diagnosis which is based on subjectively measured symptoms will ever be demonstrated to be a distinct physiological entity. Rather, a group of people who's symptoms are consistent with the same DSM diagnosis are likely to have numerous different pathologies- both biological and psychosocial in nature.
Regards,
Ed.
poster:ed_uk
thread:422741
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20041206/msgs/425186.html