Posted by BIGDaddyachmed69 on April 30, 2005, at 2:05:45
In reply to why do antipsychotics have anti-depressant effect?, posted by mogger on April 30, 2005, at 1:53:55
> Hello,
> I am wondering why do anti-psychotics are supposed to have anti-depressant effects when they block certain neuro transmitters? I thought that drugs like prozaq and zoloft actually inhibit these neuro transmitters from being destroyed and they are supposed to be THE ANTIDEPRESSANTS? I mention seroquel in particular as I hear it has anti-depressant effects. I am currently on zyprexa. I just don't get it when I also hear people say that anti-psychotics augment anti-depressants. Can anyone help explain this to me? Many thanks,
> moggerI'm going to try and do the best I can to help you out there, mogger...first off, make sure never to be on an antipsychotic as your sole antidepressant. BAD idea. They are sometimes used to augment the antidepressant effects of the SSRIs, particularly Prozac as they now have Symbyax, basically Zyprexa with Prozac. It has been approved by the FDA to treat bipolar depression, so for whatever reason Zyprexa seems to have some sort of antidepressant effects. I'm just as confused as you are as far as the pharmacology...why would blocking the reuptake of serotonin cause a decrease in depression, while blocking certain serotonergic receptors could do the same. It's interesting too how the atypical antipsychotics also seem to have anti-OCD properties to their credit. Some also claim that they have anti-anxiety properties as well, but I just tend to think it's because they're generally sedating. Just my two cents, dawg.
BIGDaddyachmed69
poster:BIGDaddyachmed69
thread:491782
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20050428/msgs/491785.html