Posted by ixus on May 1, 2005, at 3:38:28
In reply to why do antipsychotics have anti-depressant effect?, posted by mogger on April 30, 2005, at 1:53:55
> Hello,
> I am wondering why do anti-psychotics are supposed to have anti-depressant effects when they block certain neuro transmitters? I thought that drugs like prozaq and zoloft actually inhibit these neuro transmitters from being destroyed and they are supposed to be THE ANTIDEPRESSANTS? I mention seroquel in particular as I hear it has anti-depressant effects. I am currently on zyprexa. I just don't get it when I also hear people say that anti-psychotics augment anti-depressants. Can anyone help explain this to me? Many thanks,
> moggerHi Mogger,
there are "good and bad" serotonin receptors. Sometimes. While you are depressed, you lack serotonin, receptors become oversensitive. If you increase serotonin, your depression can get even worse expecially when "bad" receptors can not adapt (become less active) to higher dose of serotonin.
In conclussion, the goal is to increase the serotonin and/or upregulate "good" receptors and/or dowregulate "bad" once.
/ixus
poster:ixus
thread:491782
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20050428/msgs/492198.html