Posted by Brainbeard on June 30, 2010, at 0:13:58
In reply to Re: what is 50mg anafranil = to as SSRI ?, posted by SLS on June 29, 2010, at 18:36:57
> I am relating dosage to clinical response, not to isolated measurements of various physiological effects.
>
>
> - ScottYeah. I was thinking more of SRI potency. When you're thinking of clinical response in general, even 2.5mg of Prozac can be a therapeutic dose. While Luvox is such a weak SSRI that 50mg is unlikely to do much for most people. A 10mg dose of Celexa also seems to be a subtherapeutic level. Same goes for 10mg Paxil. Thing is that 50mg of clomipramine is not a subtherapeutic dose, generally speaking, in my opinion. When you put Zoloft on 50mg in your list, a full therapeutic dose, I can't see why you'd put the drugs mentioned below their full therapeutic levels. But opinions might differ on what's a full therapeutic dose, of course. Preskorn takes 80% inhibition of serotonin receptors as the norm and consequently mentions higher doses for the drugs in question (also 20mg for Prozac).
> Off the top of my head:
>
> Anafranil 50mg
> Prozac 10mg
> Paxil 10mg
> Zoloft 50mg
> Luvox 50mg
> Celexa 10mg
> Lexapro 5mg
> Effexor 75mg
> Cymbalta 30mg
> Pristiq 25mg
Current meds: sertraline 200mg; amitriptyline 50mg; melatonin 0.3mg. PRN: diazepam (Valium) 2.5-10mg.
poster:Brainbeard
thread:952518
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20100628/msgs/952671.html