Posted by Christ_empowered on July 4, 2010, at 20:32:29
In reply to why do antipsychotics work faster than antideps?, posted by inanimate peanut on July 4, 2010, at 18:53:56
The earliest tranquilizer, thorazine, was spotted when they noticed how calm it made rats (or something...the phenothiazines were tested on animals). Then they used it in pre-operative sedation, then as a sleeping pill, and then some shrinks got the idea to experiment on mental patients.
I think you're underestimating the profound action of a D2 blockade. That's where the "tranquilization" really comes in. If you look at the older neuroleptics, some of them barely touch anything but D2--I'm thinking here of haloperidol, fluphenazine, etc. Its all about the drug-induced Parkinsonian state, with effects ranging from apathy and indifference (at what I guess would be "tranquilizer" or "anxiolytic" doses) to full fledged tremors, shuffling gait, and even drooling (ahh yes, the "chemical straight jacket").
So..that's my theory; its all in the D2 blockade, although some (nozinan, seroquel, neulactil, zyprexa, clozapine, so on and so forth) have a lot more going on.
Its worth noting that shrinks sometimes don't use the less sedating ones or say they "don't work" like the other ones. I'm thinking here of Moban (not used much in schizophrenia--more for ODD teens) and Abilify (more a Bipolar drug than a schizophrenia drug). Weird.
Just my thoughts...
poster:Christ_empowered
thread:953307
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20100628/msgs/953317.html