Posted by inanimate peanut on July 4, 2010, at 22:39:29
In reply to Re: why do antipsychotics work faster than antideps?, posted by Phillipa on July 4, 2010, at 21:36:32
I'm just wondering because Geodon worked for me within 24 hours, and I don't necessarily think I'm that big of an exception. I'm not necessarily talking about the sedating properties working within hours, but I'm talking about the actual mood alteration happening with antipsychotics within hours to days vs. weeks for anti-depressants. For instance, they just had me try Zyprexa for 2 weeks and considered that a full trial whereas a full trial of nortriptyline will likely be 6 weeks or so. If it was just because antipsychotics, unlike the anti-depressants we have now, operate on dopamine, then we would still expect them to work *better* in 4-6 weeks when the serotonin action kicked it too. We don't see that though that I've experienced or heard on here or elsewhere. There doesn't seem to be a two-tiered response to antipsychotics. If they're working on the same receptors for serotonin, why does one work so much faster than the other?
poster:inanimate peanut
thread:953307
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20100628/msgs/953329.html