Posted by linkadge on April 2, 2011, at 13:23:57
In reply to Re: From which dose venlafaxine is stimulant?, posted by mtdewcmu on April 1, 2011, at 20:50:47
>Remeron is multiply-acting. It blocks alpha2 >adrenergic, 5-ht2a, 5-ht2c, and 5-ht3 receptors. >I don't know if that makes it as effective as >they say, but why would Remeron's makers be >better at influencing the scientific >publications than anyone else?
Remeron can produce faster improvement in certain depressive symptoms (anxiety, insomnia, loss of appetite etc). However, many of the studies I have read, seem to suggest that S/NRIs improvement lags, but is often superior after about 4 weeks. I don't know how the data was anaylsed.
I really don't know how to answer the question. However, there are a lot of good psychiatrists out there that don't think much of remeron. I personally think that remeron is great at masking symptoms of depression (not that any antidepressant does much more), but people I talk to seem to think its great at improving symptoms of deprssion without actually improving depression (if that makes any sense).
>I think when they do those meta-analyses, they >reinterpret the raw data, rather than relying on >the interpretations of the original authors. Not >completely sure though.
That may be so, but I think its like comparing apples to oranges. There are many subtle, but powerful things that can influence the outcome of a trial. I just don't think its possible to compare two different trials done on two different dates, in two different locations, funded by two different parties, on two different groups of people.
With a lot of these trials, if the wind blows a different way, you'd get different results IMHO. Unless its industry funded, then you know what results to expect.
Linkadge
poster:linkadge
thread:981641
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20110321/msgs/981728.html