Posted by linkadge on October 27, 2007, at 21:04:00
In reply to Re: Dopamine agonists cause sedation. But why?? » linkadge, posted by amigan on October 27, 2007, at 20:19:09
>We use to have one. Amineptine. And iirc, it was >a mild stimulant.
Yes, but hard to say. I don't know how selective it was. It was abusable but I didn't know it was a strong stimulant.
>I'm not sure if this is 100% true. See >Amineptine.
Well, I was refering to drugs that are still in stages of development. I will try to look for some of the abstracts. There is the issue too of co-release. Oftentimes release of dopamine initiates the release of norepinephrine, and vice versa. So even a pure DRI, might have an indirect noradrenergic effect. Nevertheless, I think a dopamine agonist may circumvent this issue.
>Imagine a drug that have strong antihistaminic >properties and weak noradrenergic. That drug >would have been a sedative despite its action on >the NE. Perhaps nortriptyline is a good example >to this.Yes, but the noradrenergic effects of nortryptaline are still pronounced. It will still get the ticker going. Sedative and stimulant effects don't always totally or directly cancel.
Its really too simplistic to look at it in these ways though, I know. Dopamine does not do one thing.
Linkadge
poster:linkadge
thread:791344
URL: http://www.dr-bob.org/babble/20071027/msgs/791871.html